"We take the exponential of each input and normalize by the sum of all exponentials. This transforms a vector of arbitrary real numbers into values between 0 and 1 that sum to 1, it technically this is a pseudo-probability distribution (they're not derived from a probability space), but it's close enough to a probability distribution and for practical purposes they work just fine."

Why is this a "pseudo-probability distribution?"

This could also be viewed as supporting the Bayesian perspective, where the observed data are not viewed as random variables - they are fixed. This is because, as you say, the observed outcome is the only outcome that you observe. It is the classical setting, in comparison, where we instead do our analysis by treating the sample as a random variable, placing the counterfactual on other non-observed values ("what if I had drawn a different sample?"), even though we didn't. Bayesian methods treat the data as gospel truth, and place the counterfactual on the different parameters ("what if the population were different?"), even though it isn't.

The other criticism you have is

> The problem with this approach is that we can only observe ONE level of treatment effectiveness, i.e., the level of treatment effectiveness that the treatment actually possesses. All other possible levels of effectiveness are entirely hypothetical.

This is true of both Bayesian and classical methods. We build models that would explain how different hypothetical levels of effectiveness would affect what data we should expect to see - that is the whole point. Classical methods also involve exploring scenarios in which purely hypothetical values of the parameter may be potentially true, and characterizing counterfactual samples that could have been drawn from them, even though in real life they couldn't have been.

I feel like you're making this statement in bad faith, rather than honestly believing the developers of the forum software here have built in a clause to pin simonw's comments to the top.

If by this you mean to ask if the new guidelines are the same as previous ones from the 80s, then no. The new pyramid is different, makes different recommendations (more meat, for instance, and less wheat and grains). The website linked to explicitly shows how it is different from the previous "food pyramid" guidelines.